NURS 6630 Week 3: Self Assessment Quiz with 100% correct answers

NURS 6630 Week 3: Self Assessment Quiz with 100% correct answers

Question 1

G-protein coupled receptors serve as targets for several psychiatric medications. Given our understanding of these receptors, what is the ultimate outcome when one of them is activated in a manner that enhances an action?

A. Intracellular activation of second messengers

 

B. Protein phosphorylation

Correct!

C. Modification of gene expression

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Both A and B are steps in the processes leading to modification of gene expression.

Question 2

When a Serotonin reuptake pump is blocked, what occurs in the synaptic cleft and on the post-synaptic cell membrane?

A. This leads to an increase in available Serotonin in the synaptic cleft, causing the post-synaptic cell to increase the number of Serotonin receptors.

Correct!

B. This results in an increase in available Serotonin in the synaptic cleft, causing the post-synaptic neuron to decrease the number of Serotonin receptors.

 

C. This causes an increase in Serotonin in the synaptic cleft, resulting in an increase in reuptake pumps on the presynaptic neuron.

 

D. This leads to an increase in Serotonin in the synaptic cleft, resulting in a decrease in reuptake pumps on the pre-synaptic neuron. NURS 6630 Week 3: Self Assessment Quiz with 100% correct answers

 

Options A, C, and D misrepresent what happens when Serotonin is increased in the synaptic cleft. There is no impact on the pre-synaptic neuron, and increases in Serotonin result in a reduction of receptor concentration on the post-synaptic neuron.

Question 3

Motivation is a component of patient-focused interventions to enhance adherence. According to the transtheoretical model, readiness to change can vary across five stages. Which stage is exemplified by the patient who is aware of a problem’s existence and, while seriously considering overcoming it, has not yet committed to a plan of action?

Preparation

 

Action

Correct!

Contemplation

 

Maintenance

 

Question 4

Receptors initiate one of two effector pathways that lead to changes in neuronal activity. These changes ultimately impact gene expression. Which effector pathway is characterized by ion flux through transmitter-activated channels, resulting in an altered membrane potential and neuronal activity?

A. Slow effector pathways

 

B. Modulated effector pathways

Correct!

C. Rapid effector pathways

 

D. NMDA glutamate receptor pathways

 

Answer B is fictitious, D represents a type of rapid effector pathway, and A pertains to G-protein coupled receptors.

Question 5

Among the components of patient-focused interventions to enhance adherence, which component includes strategies like adaptive thinking, use of cues, and support?

Motivation

Correct!

Skills

 

Logistics

 

Education

 

Skills encompass adaptive thinking, problem solving, use of cues, and support.

Question 6

Treatment adherence is influenced by various factors, including clinical factors such as mood, anxiety, psychosis, and substance misuse. Patient factors like knowledge, attitude, and beliefs also play a role, as do economic and racial/ethnic disparities, and clinical encounters. A patient who presents with hopelessness, decreased energy, and poor concentration is affected by which factor?

Substance misuse

 

Knowledge deficits

 

Attitude and belief system

Correct!

Mood

 

These are indicative of altered mood.

Question 7

Neurotransmitters are characterized by four essential features. These are:

A. Neurotransmitters are synthesized within presynaptic neurons. NURS 6630 Week 3: Self Assessment Quiz with 100% correct answers

 

B. Depolarization of a neuron results in the release of a neurotransmitter, which exerts a multitude of actions on the postsynaptic neuron.

 

C. Their action on postsynaptic neurons can be replicated by administering a drug that mimics the activity of the endogenous neurotransmitter.

 

D. Their action in the synaptic cleft is terminated by a specific action.

Correct!

E. A, C, and D only

 

Option B should state “a discrete action” (not multitude) on the post-synaptic neuron.

Question 8

Neurotransmission is unidirectional in terms of chemical and electrical conduction within the individual neuron. Which of the following descriptions best characterizes the sequence of neurotransmitter/receptor interaction resulting in an electrical signal impulse and the release of another neurotransmitter for interaction in the synaptic cleft (signal conduction through a neuron)?

Dendrites, Axon, Cell body, Axon, Axon terminals

 

Dendrites, Cell body, Axon, Axon terminals

Correct!

Cell body, Dendrites, Axon, Axon terminals

 

Axon terminals, Axon, Cell body, Dendrites

 

All other options misrepresent the sequence in signal conduction.

Question 9

The synaptic cleft is most accurately described by which of the following statements?

A. The synaptic cleft is the space between the dendrites and axon terminals of a single neuron, where intracellular communication occurs through the release of neurotransmitters, allowing for signal conduction throughout the central nervous system.

 

B. The synaptic cleft is the space between the cell body and axon terminals, allowing for the release of neurotransmitters from the presynaptic neuron for intercellular communication with an adjacent neuron (post-synaptic neuron).

Correct!

C. The synaptic cleft is an area where dendrites and axon terminals are in close proximity, allowing for the release of a neurotransmitter from a presynaptic neuron that can interact with receptors on dendritic cells of a post-synaptic neuron, forming the primary basis for intercellular communication among neurons.

 

Answer A describes a neuron communicating with itself, and Answer B states that the synapse is the space between the cell body (not dendrites) and axon terminals.

Question 10

The human brain is divided into four major structures: the cerebral cortex, brainstem, subcortical structures, and the cerebellum. Of these major categories, which one contains the area of the brain that some neuropathological studies have found to be smaller in patients with schizophrenia?

Cerebral cortex

 

Brainstem

Correct!

Subcortical structures

 

Cerebellum

 

The implicated area of the brain is part of the thalamus, located within the subcortical structures. The other options are not geographically accurate. NURS 6630 Week 3: Self Assessment Quiz with 100% correct answers

Question 11

Neurons can be classified in several ways. From the following statements, identify which ones are true.

The two structural classifications are projection neurons and local interneurons.
Functional classifications consist of two subcategories: excitatory and inhibitory.
Histological classification includes bipolar, unipolar, and multipolar.
Class

ifications that combine structural, functional, and neurotransmitter type provide the most comprehensive and useful description.
Classification based solely on neurotransmitter type offers the most useful description.

I only

III only

I, II, and V only

 

I, II, III, IV, and V
Correct!

I, III, and IV

Statement II would need to include modulatory function to be correct, and Statement V does not encompass structural and functional classification systems.

Question 12

Which of the following includes all the major neurotransmitters relevant in psychiatry?

glutamate, GABA, dopamine, serotonin, norepinephrine, histamine, steroids, nitric oxide

Correct!

glutamate, GABA, dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, acetylcholine, histamine, endogenous opioids, steroids, cannabinoids, nitric oxide

 

glutamate, GABA, dopamine, serotonin, acetylcholine, endogenous opioids, nitric oxide, cannabinoids, steroids

 

glutamate, GABA, dopamine, serotonin, norepinephrine, endogenous opioids, steroids, histamine, nitric oxide

 

All other options omit neurotransmitters considered important in psychiatry.

Question 13

G-protein coupled receptors exemplify what type of effector pathway?
Correct!

A. Slow effector pathways

 

B. Rapid effector pathways

 

C. NMDA glutamate receptor pathways

 

D. Modulated effector pathways

 

Answer D is fictitious, B represents ion channel receptors, and C is a type of rapid effector pathway.

Question 14

Which neurotransmitter is considered the major excitatory neurotransmitter?

A. Glycine

 

B. GABA

Correct!

C. Glutamate

 

D. Serotonin

 

Both A and B are inhibitory, and D is involved in mood and sleep.

Question 15

Glia cells play a supportive role to neurons. Some functions of glial cells include providing nutrition, maintaining homeostasis, stabilizing synapses, and myelinating axons. Glial cells are categorized as microglia and macroglia. Among these two cell types, which one actively and critically participates in glutamatergic neurotransmission by providing a co-agonist necessary for glutamate receptor function?

Microglial

Correct!

Macroglial

 

Microglial cells are small, phagocytic cells similar to peripheral macrophages.

Question 16

If a patient admits to taking their medication every other day (instead of daily, as prescribed), a potential concern would be:

A. Adequate understanding or acceptance of the illness

 

B. Medication abuse

Correct!

C. Financial constraints

 

D. Whether the desired effect is achieved at a lower daily dose? NURS 6630 Week 3: Self Assessment Quiz with 100% correct answers

 

A represents sporadic medication intake, B represents excessive medication intake, and D represents lower-than-prescribed but daily medication intake.

Question 17

When dopamine (subtype 2) receptors are blocked in this pathway (system), it is evident through EPS.

A. Mesocortical

 

B. Tuberoinfundibular

Correct!

C. Nigrostriatal

 

D. Mesolimbic

 

D is linked to positive symptoms in schizophrenia, B is related to lactation, and A is associated with affect.

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Question 18

Introducing adherence in facilitating treatment goals is necessary for a patient who has previously demonstrated nonadherence patterns.

True

Correct!

False

 

It should be introduced as early as possible in treatment to mitigate the risks associated with nonadherence.

Question 19

A patient arrives in the ED via EMS after experiencing a grand mal seizure. The ED physician instructs the RN to administer 10 milligrams of Diazepam IV as a single dose STAT. The patient’s seizure subsides within 2 minutes of receiving Diazepam. By which receptor type (effector pathway/receptor subtype) does this medication cause the rapid resolution of seizure activity?

A. Slow effector pathways/G-protein coupled receptor

 

B. Slow effector pathway/ion channel

 

C. Rapid effector pathways/G-protein coupled receptor

Correct!

D. Rapid effector pathway/ion channel

 

Options B and C are mismatched, and Option A describes effects that occur days to weeks after activation.

Question 20

Serotonin (5HT) is a neurotransmitter associated with mood, sleep, and psychosis. There are multiple serotonin receptors throughout the human body. A distinctive feature of second-generation antipsychotics is their ability to block 5HT2a receptors. What is the consequence of this inhibition?
Correct!

A. Stabilizes dopamine concentrations in the CNS

 

B. Induces anxiety

 

C. Causes hallucinations

 

D. Reduces platelet function

 

B represents antagonism of 5HT1a, C is associated with a 5HT2a agonist, and D pertains to the inhibition of SERT. NURS 6630 Week 3: Self Assessment Quiz with 100% correct answers