NRNP 6531 Midterm Exam Questions

NRNP 6531 Midterm Exam Questions

The LACE regulatory model consists of four elements. Which of the following is not one of the components of this regulatory model?

A) Licensure
B) Accreditation
C) Certification
D) Empanelment

Question 2

To mitigate adverse events associated with care transitions, what policy has been implemented by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services?

A) Mandates for communication among primary caregivers and hospitalists
B) Penalties for failure to perform medication reconciliations at the time of discharge
C) Reduction of payments for patients readmitted within 30 days after discharge
D) Requirements for written discharge instructions for patients and caregivers

Question 5

According to the National Standards, what is the minimum number of hours of direct patient care required for APRNs?

A) 400 hours
B) 500 hours
C) 600 hours
D) 700 hours

Question 6

Angie, a new NP, completed her FNP program but is struggling to find an FNP position in her rural area. She decides to return to the ER as an APRN due to her previous experience as an Emergency Room nurse. Does she meet the competency requirements for this position?

A) Yes
B) No

Question 7

The Consensus Model specifies three core courses that all ANPs must take. Which of the following is not considered an advanced core course?

A) Public Health
B) Physiology
C) Pharmacology
D) Physical Assessment

Question 9

What is the primary purpose of clinical research trials within the spectrum of translational research?

A) Adoption of interventions and clinical practices into routine clinical care
B) Determination of the basis of disease and various treatment options
C) Examination of the safety and effectiveness of various interventions
D) Exploration of fundamental mechanisms of biology, disease, or behavior

Question 10

What is the main objective of Level II research?

A) To define characteristics of interest for groups of patients
B) To demonstrate the effectiveness of an intervention or treatment
C) To describe relationships among characteristics or variables
D) To evaluate the nature of relationships between two variables

Question 11

When assisting with a skin biopsy for a patient suspected of having bullous pemphigoid (BP) lesions, what should the practitioner do?

A) Avoid contact with the infected lesions.
B) Elicit a positive Nikolsky sign to confirm the diagnosis.
C) Perform direct immunofluorescence microscopy.
D) Prevent the spread of the lesions to other areas of the skin.

Question 12

Which of the following is not a gram-positive bacterium that can cause cellulitis?

A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Streptococci
C) Staphylococci
D) Salmonella

Question 13

When assessing the Total Percentage of Body Surface Area for adult burn patients, each leg, arm, and head are evaluated at 9%. (True/False)

Question 14

What is the most common type of melanoma in African Americans and Asians?

A) Basal Cell carcinoma
B) Actinic Keratosis
C) Acral Lentiginous Melanoma
D) Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis

Question 15

A patient has acne with lesions on half of the face, including nodules and two scarred areas. Which treatment is most likely to be prescribed?

A) Oral clindamycin for 6 to 8 weeks
B) Oral isotretinoin
C) Topical benzoyl peroxide and clindamycin
D) Topical erythromycin

Question 16

A patient is newly diagnosed with bullous pemphigoid and experiences moderate to severe itching. The provider prescribes a topical corticosteroid. What potential complication should be discussed with the patient?

A) Bone marrow suppression
B) Development of systemic lesions
C) Secondary infection
D) Spread of the disease to others

Question 17

Chickenpox and shingles are caused by different viruses. (True/False)

Question 18

A patient has actinic keratosis, and the provider plans to use cryosurgery for lesion removal. How will the provider administer this procedure?

A) Applying one or two freeze-thaw cycles to each lesion
B) Applying two or more freeze-thaw cycles to each lesion
C) Applying until the freeze spreads laterally 1 mm from the lesion edges
D) Applying until the freeze spreads laterally 4 mm from the lesion edges

Question 19

A female patient is diagnosed with hidradenitis suppurativa and presents with multiple areas of swelling, pain, erythema, and several abscesses in the right femoral area. When counseling the patient about this disorder, which information should the practitioner include?

A) Antibiotic therapy is effective in clearing up the lesions.
B) It is often progressive with relapses and permanent scarring.
C) The condition is precipitated by depilatories and deodorants.
D) The lesions are infective, and the disease may be transmitted to others.

Question 20

A flat nonpalpable lesion less than 1 cm in diameter is categorized as which type of primary skin lesion?

A) Papule
B) Macule
C) Plaque
D) Bullae

Question 21

Patty comes to the clinic with soft, fatty cystic lesions on her neck, trunk, and arms. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Nevi
B) Acanthosis Nigricans
C) Acrochordon
D) Cherry Angioma

Question 22

What is the initial approach for obtaining a biopsy of a potential malignant melanoma lesion?

A) Excisional biopsy
B) Punch biopsy
C) Shave biopsy
D) Wide excision

Question 23

Jake, a 66-year-old male with a history of psoriasis, notices new psoriatic plaques forming over areas of skin trauma following a fall with deep tissue injuries. What phenomenon is this known as?

A) Koebner Phenomenon
B) Ashpitz Sign
C) Guttate Phenomenon
D) None of the above

Question 24

An adult patient has been diagnosed with atopic dermatitis and seborrheic dermatitis, with lesions on the forehead and along the scalp line. When prescribing a corticosteroid medication to treat this condition, which statement is correct?

A) Initiate treatment with 0.1% triamcinolone acetonide.
B) Monitor the patient closely for systemic adverse effects during use.
C) Place an occlusive dressing over the medication after application.
D) Prescribe 0.05% fluocinonide to apply liberally.

What is Emergency Care Nursing?

Question 25

A patient sustains a human bite on the hand during a fistfight. What is of particular concern with this type of bite injury?

A) Possible exposure to rabies virus
B) Potential septic arthritis or osteomyelitis
C) Sepsis from Capnocytophaga canimorsus infection
D) Transmission of human immunodeficiency virus

Question 26

Audrey, a 19-year-old female, experiences hearing difficulties in class and is diagnosed with otitis media. In this condition, what would the Rinne Test reveal?

A)

BC > AC
B) AC > BC
C) AC = BC
D) None of the above

Question 27

Aaron, an 18-year-old male, presents with nasal stuffiness, sneezing, scratchy throat, hoarseness, low-grade fever, and a cough persisting for 4 days. What is the likely diagnosis?

A) Common cold
B) Influenza
C) Sinusitis
D) Mumps

Question 28

What is the most common cause of orbital cellulitis in all age groups?

A) Bacteremic spread from remote infections
B) Inoculation from local trauma or bug bites
C) Local spread from the ethmoid sinus
D) Paranasal sinus inoculation

Question 29

A female patient is diagnosed with androgenetic alopecia. Which medication will the primary health care provider prescribe?

A) Anthralin
B) Cyclosporine
C) Finasteride
D) Minoxidil

Question 30

During an eye examination, the provider observes a red-light reflex in one eye but not the other. What is the significance of this finding?

A) Normal physiologic variant
B) Ocular disease requiring referral
C) Potential infection in the “red” eye
D) Potential vision loss in one eye

Question 31

Bryce, a 17-year-old male, complains of sudden ear pain, popping noises, muffled hearing, and a ruptured tympanic membrane upon examination. What is the first-line treatment for Bryce?

A) Amoxicillin
B) Cefoxin
C) Augmentin
D) Levaquin

Question 32

A patient presents with diffuse erythema in one eye, without pain or trauma history. Examination reveals a deep red, confluent hemorrhage in the conjunctiva of that eye. What is the most likely treatment for this condition?

A) Order lubricating drops or ointments.
B) Prescribe ophthalmic antibiotic drops.
C) Reassure the patient that this will resolve.
D) Refer to an ophthalmologist.

Question 33

If the BC > AC during a hearing test, what type of hearing loss does the person have?

A) Conductive hearing loss
B) Sensorineural hearing loss

Question 34

In performing the Rinne test on Audrey, where would the tuning fork be placed?

A) Midline of the forehead
B) Mastoid process
C) Temporal area of the head

Question 35

A patient with chronically dry eyes reports a foreign body sensation, burning, itching, and an abnormal Schirmer test. What is the suspected cause of these symptoms?

A) Aqueous deficiency
B) Corneal abrasion
C) Evaporative disorder
D) Poor eyelid closure

Question 36

A patient presents with a warm, tender, erythematous nodule on one eyelid. On examination, clear conjunctivae and no discharge are noted. What is the recommended treatment?

A) Referral to an ophthalmologist
B) Surgical incision and drainage
C) Systemic antibiotics
D) Warm compresses and massage of the lesion

Question 37

If the NP performed a Weber test on Audrey, what would be the result?

A) Lateralization to the good ear
B) Lateralization to the bad ear
C) Lateralization would be equal in either ear